Orlion wrote:Whether the law is supernatural or natural, it is still law and will still determine the predictable outcome. Otherwise, it isn't law.
I have no idea what a supernatural law is, or why we should assume one is involved in foreknowledge. If we're talking about something supernatural, why would it be constrained in any way, much less by a law?
Agreed. But if choice does exist, that entails to me that nothing can be omniscience about things that are future.
Well, I agree that omniscience is impossible, but I believe this for more reasons than the existence of freewill. There are other ways in which the universe is not deterministic (chaos, randomness, quantum uncertainty, etc.). Any knowledge of the future--from either inside or outside the universe--would necessarily have to arise from something other than knowing deterministic mechanisms which lead to events A and B, if there are no such deterministic mechanisms (and in the case of freewill, this is precisely the issue in question, so it's not at all obvious or logically necessary).
If they are outside of time and know it, that means something outside or within time must determine our actions, otherwise how would that being know with any certainty?
Foreknowledge does not imply knowing that something (like a law)
determines A . . . only knowing that A
will occur. This isn't necessarily due to insufficient knowledge of a law, because if A isn't determined by a law, there is no law to know.
If you can predict the actions of others, that means that those actions were not predicated on this idea of "choice" since choice (in at least the individual sense) implies that a different action can be followed.
Knowledge of the future doesn't mean that a different choice couldn't have been chosen, but merely which choice will actually be chosen. The knowledge of this fact doesn't eliminate the possible alternatives any more than the fact that one choice is actually chosen eliminates the possibility from those alternatives.
When you know what a person is going to do, you are in fact saying that a different action is not viable, it will not happen.
No. "Not viable" does't necessarily means "it will not happen." Alternatives fail to happen all the time, and it's not always because they aren't viable. A lot of the time (like with choices), it's because they're not chosen. So an event can be impossible for reasons that have nothing to do with choice, and it can also be possible--and yet fail to happen--because another choice was made. The foreknowledge of the choice doesn't alter the situation one bit. It doesn't alter the viability of the unchosen events, becuase the viability of those events never relied upon someone choosing them. Their potentiality relies upon other reasons (like whether they violate the laws of physics, etc.).
So knowing what a person will do is not the same as saying a different action is not viable, even though it is saying that it will not happen. Saying, "it will not happen," has no effect whatsoever on the outcome or the factors which make something viable.
Let's imagine that someone says, "Team X will not win Saturday." Normally, we call this a guess. But let's say they guess correctly. Did that correct guess affect the outcome? Not in the slightest. Now imagine that they continued making correct guesses, every single game. At some point, we'd have to say they have knowledge, and weren't merely making guesses, because correctly guessing every game from here to eternity is impossible. While their success rate would go up, there is nothing involved in this process which affects the external factors that make events viable or possible.
It seems to me that you're transferring the impossibility of omniscience to freewill, by entertaining the existence of this impossible thing (omniscience) in the first place. When you insist upon "inserting" impossible things into reality, paradox starts squeezing out through the cracks.
Magical knowledge can no more reveal the existence of unsuspected lawful behavior in choice, than magical carpets can reveal the existence of
unlawful behavior in gravity. It's a
violation of the way the universe works, and thus confers no logical necessity upon reality.
Let's turn this backwards: do you think everything happens due to adherence to underlying laws? If so, then wouldn't it be possible (in principle) to know the future if you can know these laws? If that's the case, then wouldn't this knowledge of the future mean that there never were any other possible ways for the universe to unfold? That no other possible state is even viable? I'm not sure what kind of world that would be. How things like quantum randomness could exist? Our physical laws
are the parameters of possiblity. They're meaningless if only one possibility is viable.