Opus Dei and Christ's Blood line.

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Kinslaughterer
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Post by Kinslaughterer »

well the annoiting could be allegorical?
Sure could...That is where everything becomes difficult. What is allegorical/metaphorical and what is literal? I don't really see any benefit to a metaphorical marriage other than to confuse the reader, but it is a possibility. However, the death/sacrifice of Jesus could also be metaphorical, so I the entire scenario becomes more problematic.

Anointments were very regimented traditions. Typically, texts don't get into the complexity of the anointment of the deceased and it is a bad omen to anoint a living person with the mortuary anointments, whereas Mary M. copies the exact formula mentioned in the Song of Solomon ( I think) for the bride to anoint her groom.

As per the savior point, Jesus was a messiah, or tried to be depending on ones perception of the outcome. However, there have been many messiahs in the history of the Hebrews. The one previous to Jesus was the Hasmonean (sic) king, whose name escapes me. He also failed (again depending on intent) to recapture all of Judea/holy land from the interlopers. Messiahs generally appear during periods of occupation or warfare. IIRC, the hebrew definition of messiah doesn't have any particularly divine conotation or expectation.
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Post by Variol Farseer »

Avatar wrote:Or was deliberately excised, in the manner of many books, because it failed to fit in with current church doctrine or dogma?

--A
That's a silly allegation, since the doctrines were based on those books. If the Gospels said something different about Jesus, the doctrines would also have been different.

To put it in terms related to the subject matter of Kevin's Watch, it would be like saying that Thomas Covenant (and not Kevin) enacted the Ritual of Desecration, but that SRD's readers suppressed that information to make it look like he was a hero. In fact, the documents say what they say, and if they said TC was a Desecrator, we would not have any motivation to regard him as a hero, let alone to falsify the text. Besides, we can prove by simple textual evidence that the TC books existed years before any of us made any commentary upon them.

Likewise, the Christological doctrines of the Church were formulated generations after the latest possible date for the composition of the Gospels. The earliest manuscript fragments of the Gospels date from circa 130 AD, whereas the official doctrines concerning the Person and Nature of Christ did not begin to be formally promulgated until the Council of Nicaea in 325, and were not generally accepted until the Council of Chalcedon in 451. There are numerous Greek manuscripts of the Gospels dating back to that period, which agree down to very small details, both with each other and with the presently accepted text: the documents have been faithfully transmitted. And there are manuscripts in other languages, such as Gothic and Armenian, which were prepared and preserved by national churches outside the Roman Empire which did not accept the decisions of the Council of Chalcedon. These, too, agree with the Greek text as closely as any translation can be expected to do. Quite clearly the doctrines were derived from the Gospels and not the other way round.

As for the anointing: it would be very surprising news to me if 1st-century Jewish brides anointed dead grooms, or if wives anointed their husbands after they had been married for some time. If you want evidence that Mary of Magdala was Jesus' wife, you must look for evidence in Jewish funeral customs, not wedding customs. Such evidence is wanting. Even if it were normal for the wife of a married man to anoint his body in preparation for burial, obviously the anointing of an unmarried man would have to be done by someone who was not his wife.
Kinslaughterer wrote:Other than Jesus's savior status in the New Testament, what proof is there that he isn't just a mostly normal ambitious Hebrew?
Other than Jesus' saviour status in the New Testament, what proof is there that Jesus even existed? Virtually none. You can't cherry-pick. Either you accept those documents as substantially truthful, or you reject them as substantially false; and if you reject them, you have no reason to say anything about Jesus at all. There is no external body of evidence against which to judge them chapter by chapter and verse by verse. And the evidence of the New Testament portrays Jesus as anything but ambitious. He consistently advised his followers to obey the Roman authorities, and refused to be cast as a political leader or revolutionary despite the obvious desire of many Jews that he should play such a role.

By the way, don't come the 'Gnostic Gospels' with me. Textual critics, both now and at the time, have found solid grounds for rejecting those documents, both from the date of composition and because their depiction of Jesus is radically incompatible with that of the Synoptic Gospels and the writings of the early Church Fathers. One would think, to read these conspiracy theories, that the science of textual criticism had never been invented, and that the content and meaning of old documents was strictly a matter of opinion and guesswork. That is very far from the truth.
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Post by Avatar »

Variol Farseer wrote:
Avatar wrote:Or was deliberately excised, in the manner of many books, because it failed to fit in with current church doctrine or dogma?

--A
That's a silly allegation, since the doctrines were based on those books. If the Gospels said something different about Jesus, the doctrines would also have been different.
Are you saying that no books were removed from the bible as we know it? Or that the bible as we know it is unaltered from the time it was first compiled, let alone written?
Variol Farseer wrote:Other than Jesus' saviour status in the New Testament, what proof is there that Jesus even existed? Virtually none.
Excellent point. :D

--A
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Post by Lord Mhoram »

Farseer,
Other than Jesus' saviour status in the New Testament, what proof is there that Jesus even existed? Virtually none.
Well, I would take issue with this. Jewish historian Josephus mentions Christ, as does the Imperial Roman historian Suetonius. Several anti-Christian Hebrew polemical texts mention Christ's life. Therefore, I was aware and Kins perhaps can tell me, that most historians agreed that the historical Jesus of Nazareth did in fact live. It is the validity of the Gospels that is in question historically.
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Flavius Josephus (c.37 AD - c.100 AD) is quoted by many scholars as providing evidence concerning Jesus. In Antiquities of the Jews, written in 93 AD, Jesus is mentioned twice, most notably in the Testimonium Flavianum. However, John Dominic Crossan and K. H. Rengstorff have noted that the passage has many internal indicators that seem to be inconsistent with the rest of Josephus' writing and with what is known about Josephus, leading them to think that part or all of the passage may have been forged.

A 10th century manuscript has been discovered which reports the existence of an alternate version of the passage. No explanation has been provided as to how this text came to be and why it differs from the other texts. Some scholars consider this text to also be in error, since the author, Agapius of Hierapolis, seems to have quoted it from memory.

The growing consensus among scholars is that the passage is not entirely forged, but it is difficult to be sure what the original passage said.
Gaius Suetonius (c.69 AD–140 AD) wrote the following in 112 AD as part of his biography of Emperor Claudius (12 Caesars): Iudaeos, impulsore Chresto, assidue tumultuantes Roma expulit ("As the Jews were making constant disturbances at the instigation of Chrestus, he expelled them from Rome.").

Some have interpreted Chrestus as a misspelling of Christus, and thus as a possible reference to Jesus. However, Suetonius implies that the person in question was in Rome in 54 AD, making the likelihood that he is writing about Jesus very slim.

The term Chrestus also appears in some later texts applied to Jesus, indicating that such a spelling error is not unthinkable. However, Chrestus is itself a common name in Rome, meaning good or useful. It was a particularly common name for slaves, and, indeed, the passage deals with a slave revolt. As such, this passage is not held by the vast majority of scholars to be a reference to Jesus.
Around 112 AD, in a correspondence between Emperor Trajan and the provincial governor of Pontus and Bithynia, Pliny the Younger, a reference is made to Christians. In it, Pliny asks for the advice on how to handle Christians who refused to worship the emperor, but instead worshiped "Christus" as a god. However, Pliny simply recounts what the beliefs of the arrested were; he does not mention the name "Jesus". Pliny's words are

"Christians... asserted, however, that the sum and substance of their fault or error had been that they were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god, and to bind themselves by oath, not to some crime, but not to commit fraud, theft, or adultery, not falsify their trust, nor to refuse to return a trust when called upon to do so. " (Pliny to Trajan, Letters 10.96–97)
Tacitus wrote two paragraphs on the subject of Jesus and Christianity in 116 AD. The first states that Christians existed in Rome in Nero's time (54-68 AD). The second states that Christianity arose in Rome and Judea, and that 'Christ' was sent to death by 'the procurator Pontius Pilate'. Tacitus' description of Christianity is decidedly negative, as he calls it a "dangerous superstition" and "something raw and shameful," which makes it relatively improbable that the text was interpolated by later Christians.

Tacitus simply refers to 'Christ' - the Greek translation of the Hebrew word “Messiah”, rather than the name "Jesus", and he refers to Pontius Pilate as a "procurator", a specific post, rather than the one he is supposed to have held - prefect or governor.

Some scholars suggest that the second paragraph is merely describing Christian beliefs that were uncontroversial (i.e. that a cult leader was put to death), and that Tacitus thus had no reason not to assume as fact, even without any evidence beyond that spiritual belief. Others, including Karl Adam, claim that, as an enemy of the Christians and as a historian, Tacitus would have investigated the claim about Jesus' execution before writing it.
Jewish records of the period, both oral and written, were compiled into the Talmud, a collection of legal debates and stories so large that it fills over 30 volumes. There is no mention of anyone called "Jesus" (in Heb. Yehoshuah) within it, the closest match being a person (or persons) called Yeshu from the Babylonian Talmud. However, the description of Yeshu does not match the biblical accounts of Jesus, and the name itself is usually considered to be a derogatory acronym for anyone (possibly, but not necessarily, Christians) attempting to convert Jews from Judaism, standing for yemach shemo vezichro ("erased be his name and memory"). Additionally, the term does not occur in the Jerusalem version of the text, which would be expected to mention Jesus more often than the Babylonian version, rather than less.

However, the lack of references to Jesus in Talmudic writings may simply be due to Christianity being a minor, negligible organization when most of the Talmud was created, in addition to the Talmud being more concerned with teachings and law than with recording history.
*shrug*

The upshot is that nobody really knows I guess. I think that there probably was a religious leader/teacher at the time, certainly Christianity arose from somewhere, and a charismatic leader is a hall-mark of burgeoning religions.

--A
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Post by Lord Mhoram »

Avatar,
The upshot is that nobody really knows I guess. I think that there probably was a religious leader/teacher at the time, certainly Christianity arose from somewhere, and a charismatic leader is a hall-mark of burgeoning religions.
Agreed.
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Post by Loredoctor »

Thanks for the interesting read, Avatar.
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Post by Kinslaughterer »

That's a silly allegation, since the doctrines were based on those books. If the Gospels said something different about Jesus, the doctrines would also have been different.

To put it in terms related to the subject matter of Kevin's Watch, it would be like saying that Thomas Covenant (and not Kevin) enacted the Ritual of Desecration, but that SRD's readers suppressed that information to make it look like he was a hero. In fact, the documents say what they say, and if they said TC was a Desecrator, we would not have any motivation to regard him as a hero, let alone to falsify the text. Besides, we can prove by simple textual evidence that the TC books existed years before any of us made any commentary upon them.
It seems you are being exceedingly naive here judging by the myriad of misinterpretations and mistranslations present in both testaments.
Likewise, the Christological doctrines of the Church were formulated generations after the latest possible date for the composition of the Gospels. The earliest manuscript fragments of the Gospels date from circa 130 AD, whereas the official doctrines concerning the Person and Nature of Christ did not begin to be formally promulgated until the Council of Nicaea in 325, and were not generally accepted until the Council of Chalcedon in 451. There are numerous Greek manuscripts of the Gospels dating back to that period, which agree down to very small details, both with each other and with the presently accepted text: the documents have been faithfully transmitted. And there are manuscripts in other languages, such as Gothic and Armenian, which were prepared and preserved by national churches outside the Roman Empire which did not accept the decisions of the Council of Chalcedon. These, too, agree with the Greek text as closely as any translation can be expected to do. Quite clearly the doctrines were derived from the Gospels and not the other way round.
While I agree with most of this, the key point are positions decided on and added to doctrine/gospel. Its no coincidence that the new testament defames Jews and places Jesus's blood on their head despite his being condemned by a Roman at a Roman trial and punished by the oft used Roman cruxificition.
As for the anointing: it would be very surprising news to me if 1st-century Jewish brides anointed dead grooms, or if wives anointed their husbands after they had been married for some time. If you want evidence that Mary of Magdala was Jesus' wife, you must look for evidence in Jewish funeral customs, not wedding customs. Such evidence is wanting. Even if it were normal for the wife of a married man to anoint his body in preparation for burial, obviously the anointing of an unmarried man would have to be done by someone who was not his wife.
What exactly are you talking about? Mary anointed him before the wedding at Cana as was the tradition for engagements. Anointing him after or just before death is irrelvent.
Other than Jesus' saviour status in the New Testament, what proof is there that Jesus even existed? Virtually none. You can't cherry-pick. Either you accept those documents as substantially truthful, or you reject them as substantially false; and if you reject them, you have no reason to say anything about Jesus at all. There is no external body of evidence against which to judge them chapter by chapter and verse by verse. And the evidence of the New Testament portrays Jesus as anything but ambitious. He consistently advised his followers to obey the Roman authorities, and refused to be cast as a political leader or revolutionary despite the obvious desire of many Jews that he should play such a role.
Curious isn't it? He also tells his followers to purchase swords, advises them to be as crafty as serpents when spreading the "word", had several estremely violent men among his apostles like Simon the Zealot and Judas Sicari or Judas the dagger. His wanderings led him to Northern Israel on several occasions where the Zealots and Hasmonean families resides who were waging a guerilla war with Rome, he stated "I bring a sword" and several other suspiciously violent phrases, his enter into Jerusalem just before the Passover coincides with a major Jewish revolt putdown only by virtue of at least 2 1/2 legions being present and his subsequent round up in the garden by a "cohort" of men meaning half a legion or 600 to a 1000 soldiers, his being charged with declaring himself the King of the Jews a title that was left by Pilate, and mention of Barabbas and Jesus, Barabbas literally translating as son of the father, and a few other things I can't think of at the moment.
By the way, don't come the 'Gnostic Gospels' with me. Textual critics, both now and at the time, have found solid grounds for rejecting those documents, both from the date of composition and because their depiction of Jesus is radically incompatible with that of the Synoptic Gospels and the writings of the early Church Fathers. One would think, to read these conspiracy theories, that the science of textual criticism had never been invented, and that the content and meaning of old documents was strictly a matter of opinion and guesswork. That is very far from the truth.
The Gnostic Gospels or Nag Hammadi scripts have held up to all textual critics I've read very unlike the gospels which display distinct holes, severe mistranslations from hebrew and aramaic, missing passages, and variation among editions. The Synoptic gospels probably post date the Nag Hammadi scripts and do illustrate a much different Jesus, one that hasn't been changed dramatically for the benefit of Rome and the Catholic Church. Essentially, they act far more like a time capsule, like the Dead Sea Scrolls for a correct depiction or one at least resembling, unlike the Synoptics, 1st century Jewish culture.
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Post by Avatar »

Excellent post Kins. I'd forgotten about this one. Very interesting.

--A
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