It's still an interesting discussion.

Moderator: Fist and Faith
Oh, hell yeas, or I'd have said "Shut up SS, you're boring me." [at least abstractly/conceptually, by NOT having a concrete, material post that said so].SerScot wrote:Vraith,
It's still an interesting discussion.
No. Not only is this not true, but even if it were true, how could that explain why math doesn't change? If its content is nothing more than our definitions, then why can't we change math by defining it in different ways?Vraith wrote:...the semantic content of mathematics doesn't change because, unlike ordinary language, it has no content except its definition.
I'm trying to reply in a way that isn't repetition/doesn't lead back to stuff we've covered [if not fully exhausted], but points to new territory...because I have a nebulous intuition that there is other stuff that might be interesting...Zarathustra wrote:No. Not only is this not true, but even if it were true, how could that explain why math doesn't change? If its content is nothing more than our definitions, then why can't we change math by defining it in different ways?Vraith wrote:...the semantic content of mathematics doesn't change because, unlike ordinary language, it has no content except its definition.
We don't define the relationship between the diameter of a circle and it's circumference; we discovered it. Sure, we say that a certain symbol stands for this relationship, and that's a kind of defining. But the content of the concept exists independently of this act of choosing which symbol we'll use to talk about it. The content of this concept is much more than its definition. It's a geometrical relationship that can be expressed numerically--with digits that go on infinitely. It's a relational fact that never changes. It existed within the framework of geometry long before we discovered it and named it. How can that be a product of our definitions? How can our definitions include an infinite series of digits which none of us has ever seen or known? That's not a definition, that's an infinite process of discovery.
Thus, it's obejctively real in the sense that the meaning of "pi" isn't dependent upon our subjective intentions, connotations, feelings, impressions, etc. It has its own reality separate from our subjectivity.
But I agree with you that "concrete existence" is an incorrect way to describe this objective reality. "Ideal existence" is better.
But that's just it. They are only truly true in themselves, in the real world they are only approximate; they are represented [approximately] but not present. My post cannot truly represent my thoughts...yet it is useful, is it not? [if it isn't I should just shut the f#^# up...which may be true anyway, people in my "real" life tell me to often enough]SerScot wrote:Vraith,
If none of the mathematical approximations or abstract concepts of Mathematics can be truely represented in the real world, why are they so useful in science, medicine, enginnering, etc...?
Yeah, it does seem we're repeating ourselves a bit. But it's better than watching TV, I suppose.Vraith wrote: I'm trying to reply in a way that isn't repetition/doesn't lead back to stuff we've covered [if not fully exhausted], but points to new territory...because I have a nebulous intuition that there is other stuff that might be interesting...
I'm not sure why this matters. I've already agreed that "concrete existence" is the wrong way to describe the independent, objective existence of ideal objects. To require "pi" to be a real pie (even understanding your point metaphorically) is to insist upon a criterion that misses the point. It's as unreasonable as requiring love to have a color, in order to exist. Or to require that electrons make you feel happy.Wherever there is a perfect pi, no one can exist to eat it...wherever the eater exists, there is no perfect pi.
You can't apply the same reasoning to "horseness" as you can to circles. As you have said yourself, we can define a circle precisely. We can't do this with "horseness." The latter is an abstraction, a generalization, from known particulars (real existing objects). The ideal objects within math are purely formal. Sure, we may have abstracted the concept of "circle" from seeing things in nature like the moon and the sun, but we've never seen objects with a 10,000 sides, and yet we can easily conceive them, draw, them, define them, ect. Math isn't merely a generalization from real objects, but its own "realm" in which we discover things we've never guessed or imagined. It's impossible for all these discoveries to be abstractions from known objects, when there are no known objects that fit all these discoveries, and we didn't imagine them until we discovered them.Every particular horse, I say, is a pale imitation of pure horse-ness.
This pale perfect horse, she says, is a meaningless generalization of the multitudes of real horses in their infinite expressions of truths.
I think we can agree that the regularity we see in nature actually exists, right? We're not just making it up, or seeing an illusion, like shapes in the clouds. So how do you characterize that regularity? Is it an accidental, approximate correspondance with an imaginary system we invented? (That sounds suspiciously close to shapes in the clouds). Is there nothing we can conclude from this correspondance with math, other than our own peculiar tendency to describe things with numbers?Mathematics is just as mystical as God when asking "how, precisely, does it touch/make the world?" One's top down, the other bottom up...but that doesn't mean either actually exists.
But I am not contending that they are created by the human intellect.SerScot wrote:Vraith,
But given your contention that they are approximations created by human intellect why don't they change over time as with things created by human intellect change over time? What is different about mathematical concepts as opposed to other human created intellectual concepts?
You haven't been able to explain mathematics amazing constitency and utility to the real world.
See my points above about "horseness." How is an imaginary number or an irrational number an emergent implication of things existing for any measurable amount of time?Vraith wrote: But I am not contending that they are created by the human intellect.
I am saying they are an emergent, though only approximately precise, implication of things existing for any measurable amount of time.
You really think that all mathematical truths are explicated by stripping away physical content from their meanings? What about all the mathematical truths that are discovered merely by manipulating the formal rules of the system?A mind is necessary only for their explication. And we do that, fundamentally, by mentally stripping away the apple-content from the statement "One apple."
Is that really what the book says? A cheap imitation/reflection? I realize this is close to what Plato said, but I don't think you have to maintain that idea to describe numbers and their relationship to the universe as Platonism. I don't consider teh universe to be an illusion of the pure real TRUTH, no more than I'd consider the performance of a song to be the illusion of a written transcription of that song ... or the running of a computer code to be an illusion of that code.What I'm contending with is the idea [central to the book that started all this] that the Ideal is somehow transcendental compared to the material, that without the math itself there could be no "real," the Platonic notion that physical existence is cheap imitation/reflection, and therefore an illusion/falsification of the pure, "real" TRUTH.
Like what? How do you know they are impossible? How do you know there aren't other universes which conform to different mathematical rules?The amazement at the fact that math can so closely approximate real things, be so useful, imply other real things no one has/had thought of yet ignores the simple truth that the number of things it can ALSO approximate/are non-applicable/imply that are impossible, is infinitely greater in number.
Mutually exclusive? Again, like what?And that you need different kinds of mutually exclusive maths to describe different kinds of real things.
I'm not sure why it matters that math has infinitely more functions than those which we use to describe the universe, no more than it matters that the realm of the Possible is infinitely larger than the realm of the Actual. What matters here is that the realm of the Actual can be completely described using these tools, and there is no part of the physical universe which is non-mathematical.It's like being in awe at the number of things you can do with a pebble while completely dismissing the incomprehensibly larger number of things you CAN't do with one, ...
How can properties be contradictory? Are you saying there are objects which simultaneously exhibit property A and ~A (not A)? Are you thinking of particle/wave duality? That's not exactly the same as contradiction (A/~A), but rather an indication that our ability to comprehend through metaphors is limited. The mathematics of particle/wave duality is perfectly intelligible and noncontradictory.... and that you need pebbles with contradictory properties to perform different functions.
The stripping away is first, and emerges from a thing existing...but only needs to be done once, after that it's all a matter of not contradicting one, of consistent and logical process...one implies two, implies things between one and two, some of which are irrational, eventually you end up facing the square root of -1. But all of those operations are internal, may or may not have any relationship with actual things.Zarathustra wrote:See my points above about "horseness." How is an imaginary number or an irrational number an emergent implication of things existing for any measurable amount of time?Vraith wrote: But I am not contending that they are created by the human intellect.
I am saying they are an emergent, though only approximately precise, implication of things existing for any measurable amount of time.
You really think that all mathematical truths are explicated by stripping away physical content from their meanings? What about all the mathematical truths that are discovered merely by manipulating the formal rules of the system?A mind is necessary only for their explication. And we do that, fundamentally, by mentally stripping away the apple-content from the statement "One apple."
It does say that [well, not cheap...but lesser/inferior] through arguments/events...beings are moving from less ideal universes to more ideal ones, each level the inhabitants are "more ideal,"...I say the end result of that is eventually entering a level where living things can't exist...and never could have/can/will.Zarathustra wrote:Is that really what the book says? A cheap imitation/reflection? I realize this is close to what Plato said, but I don't think you have to maintain that idea to describe numbers and their relationship to the universe as Platonism. I don't consider teh universe to be an illusion of the pure real TRUTH, no more than I'd consider the performance of a song to be the illusion of a written transcription of that song ... or the running of a computer code to be an illusion of that code.What I'm contending with is the idea [central to the book that started all this] that the Ideal is somehow transcendental compared to the material, that without the math itself there could be no "real," the Platonic notion that physical existence is cheap imitation/reflection, and therefore an illusion/falsification of the pure, "real" TRUTH.
I think it is theoretically possible for SOME different math universes to exist...but, for instance, one in which imaginary numbers are the ordinary everyday...not possible. There simply can't be a place where there are 1i apples.Zarathustra wrote:Like what? How do you know they are impossible? How do you know there aren't other universes which conform to different mathematical rules?The amazement at the fact that math can so closely approximate real things, be so useful, imply other real things no one has/had thought of yet ignores the simple truth that the number of things it can ALSO approximate/are non-applicable/imply that are impossible, is infinitely greater in number.
Simplest example: you need three different maths [that do have some commonalities, but also contradict each other] to describe triangles in convex, flat, and concave spaces.Zarathustra wrote:Mutually exclusive? Again, like what?And that you need different kinds of mutually exclusive maths to describe different kinds of real things.
I'm not worried about the realm of the Possible...it's the realm of the impossible, that which can exist nowhere except in the math, and that no part of the universe is mathematical...it IS, and is roughly describable mathematically.Zarathustra wrote:I'm not sure why it matters that math has infinitely more functions than those which we use to describe the universe, no more than it matters that the realm of the Possible is infinitely larger than the realm of the Actual. What matters here is that the realm of the Actual can be completely described using these tools, and there is no part of the physical universe which is non-mathematical.It's like being in awe at the number of things you can do with a pebble while completely dismissing the incomprehensibly larger number of things you CAN't do with one, ...
I was being sloppy, but meaning the first [a/~a].Zarathustra wrote:How can properties be contradictory? Are you saying there are objects which simultaneously exhibit property A and ~A (not A)? Are you thinking of particle/wave duality? That's not exactly the same as contradiction (A/~A), but rather an indication that our ability to comprehend through metaphors is limited. The mathematics of particle/wave duality is perfectly intelligible and noncontradictory.... and that you need pebbles with contradictory properties to perform different functions.
That's my point. Perceptions change over time but the way mathematical concepts and relationships interact do not change. If Mathematics is created by the human mind and has no concrete existence of its own for us to discover I contend that it would alter over time.Avatar wrote:Doesn't math describe a perceived relationship between things? If our perception of that relationship is wrong, then our description must be wrong too.
SS says it's consistent...but is that strictly true? What did it look like before we realised, for example, the particle/wave duality of light?
Didn't the math change with our perception?
--A
Yes, perception is involved. But unless you're a solipsist/nihilist/skeptic, then you must admit the possibility that our perceptions can actually discern real relationships. Sure, there can be error. Senses are fallible. But that's why we have the scientific method, to minimize that potential for error. After 100s or 1000s of scientists check the same data and results, after they perform 1000s of experiments to verify their conclusions, how can you continue to say that the relationships we're seeing between math and objects is merely one of perception? It's not just in our heads ... otherwise our hypotheses wouldn't turn out to be correct and our technology wouldn't work. If mathematical relationships between gravity, mass, friction, etc. weren't real, then when we used math to do things like design buildings, our buildings would fall down. Our computers wouldn't work. Our space probes wouldn't reach their targets. Our predictions wouldn't be proven true. At some point you have to admit there's a real relationship between math and reality, because if these patterns are all in our heads, you'd have to resort to magic or ludicrous amounts of coincidence to account for why it works so well in the real world.Avatar wrote:Doesn't math describe a perceived relationship between things? If our perception of that relationship is wrong, then our description must be wrong too.
That's closer to what I was getting at. Didn't the "nature" of math change when we discovered light's particle/wave duality?Zarathustra wrote: Or maybe I'm misunderstanding your point. Maybe you're not saying the relationships aren't real, but instead that we can never know for sure if we're using the correct mathematical description?